Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 24.06.2025 02:46
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
Andrew Tate said the covid is a scam and only dorks get vaccinated. Is it true?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Has any man licked his wife's vagina while another man had sex with her?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?